Q: Sauron sent the Nazgûl to hunt for the One. What are the chances, knowing the power of the Ring, that the wraith who found it wouldn't just slip the Ring on himself and take Sauron's place?

–Larry

A: Not a chance in hell, actually, and Sauron knew it. The Ringwraiths were categorically bent to his will and would obey him come what may. No other power or entity I can think of would be able to sway them from their mission. What better creatures to send on such an errand? The Nazgûl were perhaps the only beings in all of Middle-earth that Sauron could trust, if I can loosely use that term.

In his Letters, Tolkien states that to the Nazgûl’s point of view the Ring was "a thing that filled them with fear as an object of terror in their religious cult, by which they had been conditioned to treat one who wielded it with servility." If they truly succeeded in killing Frodo early in the story and retrieved the Ring, they would have felt no substantial pull to it themselves.

–Quickbeam

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Q: Here's a question that I thought I'd raise. Elrond says at the Council of Elrond that the foundations of Barad-dûr were built by Sauron using the One Ring (which thus meant that the Dark Tower could never be completely destroyed except by the Ring's destruction). However, in "The Tale of Years," we are told that Sauron began building the Dark Tower around the year 1000 Second Age, and made the Ring in Orodruin around the year 1600, six hundred years after the construction work on Barad-dûr began. It seems a little odd that he'd only then build the foundations of the Dark Tower, given that logically, when you're building something, you start with the foundations. So what part of the Dark Tower was Sauron working on for those six hundred years prior to the making of the Ring?

–Todd Jensen

A: Oh, you know – architectural drawings, building permits, contracting for labor, delivery of material... I tell you, the paperwork was simply endless!

Oh, all right. Perhaps a better answer is that although the spells that founded Barad-dûr were laid before the forging of the Ring, when Sauron's power was placed in the Ring, those spells were then also bound by the Ring as part of his "investment" of power into the Ring.

–Ostadan

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Q: Did Gandalf have feelings? Considering that Gandalf was not a man or anything else that lives in Middle-earth, did he experience human emotions? Not just big things like happy and sad but more like the feelings evoked by human relationships: like camaraderie, gratitude, adoration, and love.

–Michmosh85@aol.com

A: I believe that he did, although probably not in the same way we experience them. Anger, certainly, he was able to feel, and I think this manifested itself most often when he thought somebody was going to thwart his task of opposing Sauron. Witness his tirade at Pippin after the stone-in-the-well incident. But also witness what came after: out of consideration for the hurt and fear he must have caused Pippin by yelling at him, he gives him a kindly word and relieves him of a fearful watch-duty. I don’t believe you can do that sort of thing without feeling compassion and kindliness towards the other person. Again with Pippin, witness his forgiveness after the palantír. "But come! I forgive you. Be comforted! Things have not turned out as evilly as they might.’ He lifted Pippin gently and carried him back to his bed." Not the act of a cold, heartless spirit. He also shows concern for the Hobbits as a whole nation, and for Frodo and Bilbo in particular; he says in the beginning of Fellowship that he has been terribly worried for the risk Bilbo and Frodo were unknowingly running in keeping the Ring until he (Gandalf) could enlighten them as to its true nature.

But I believe it’s important to note that quite naturally, Gandalf placed his task of opposing Sauron far beyond his human emotions, and it was always first in his actions and words. And in the passage where he returns from the "dead," there is a distance between him and Aragorn, Gimli, and Legolas. He seems almost not to know them at first, and I’ve always been struck at that passage by his seeming coldness to them. It seems as though he is coming to Middle-earth for the first time, full only of his task to oppose Sauron, and has not had any time or "naturalization" process to accustom him to feeling for those close to him. Later, he becomes more like their friend of old, and yes, I believe he feels genuine friendship and affection for them.

–Anwyn

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Q: Hi, I've read LOTR many times, and I've always wondered why the Fellowship gives up on the pass at Caradhras without much of a fight at all. I mean it's pretty obvious that the conditions were very unkind but surely they could withstand a bit of a snowstorm considering their only other option was Moria (which Gandalf and the others were clearly opposed to). Maybe it's the Canadian in me talking but I would much rather go through a snowstorm than some place that was dangerous, in which I might not be able to find my way out. I've always suspected though that Gandalf knew that no matter how hard they tried they would never make it through (perhaps because destiny was leading him to his fateful encounter with the Balrog). Any insight would be appreciated, thanks again,

–Colin Gatten

A: Now this is a funny question, because we recently heard from a New Zealand fellow who said the exact opposite: he thought it was ridiculously stupid to travel through high elevations during the winter (in our world most roads would be closed through the hazardous mountains due to snow, avalanches, etc). It is very interesting how Tolkien describes the might and power of Caradhras: it seems the mountain is almost a personification of Nature... a force that is sentient.

Maybe, just maybe, Gandalf’s foresight was upon him and he had to follow it through. I don’t feel strongly about that. Certainly a more practical reason caused the shift in the Fellowship’s course: secrecy. Traveling underground was something that really gave them an advantage, considering how much attention they were continually drawing to themselves out in the open (the Wolf attack, the regiments of crows).

–Quickbeam

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Q: I am confused about the poem at the beginning of LOTR–regarding the Rings of Power. It states there are 3 for the Elven Kings. I would think this would refer to the 3 branches of Elves: Noldor, Teleri, and Vanyar??? Am I correct in saying that the original bearers of these rings were Gil-galad, Galadriel, and Círdan? Gil-galad was the clearly the High King of the Noldor. Círdan could have been considered a sort of "King" of the Teleri. Although she was powerful and wise, Galadriel was never a Queen; besides she is also of the Noldor. What is your speculation on the poem and why Celebrimbor intended these three to bear his rings?

–Michael Riley

A: No; the Vanyar were not present in Middle-earth. The Three were not so distributed. Galadriel was of the House of Finarfin and probably of the greatest direct lineage in Middle-earth at the time save Gil-galad.

–Ostadan

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Q: Who and what are Dark Elves, and what is their history?

Thank you,

–Tom Hamer

A: The Index of Names to The Silmarillion states: "In the language of Aman all Elves that did not cross the Great Sea were Dark Elves (Moriquendi), and the term is sometimes used thus: when Caranthir called Thingol a Dark Elf it was intended opprobriously [my dictionary says "abusive, disrespectful"], and was especially so, since Thingol had been to Aman ‘and was not accounted among the Moriquendi.’ But in the period of the Exile of the Noldor it was often used of the Elves of Middle-earth other than the Noldor and the Sindar, and is then virtually equivalent to Avari [‘The Unwilling, the Refusers,’ the name given to all those Elves who refused to join the westward march from Cuiviénen.] Different again is the title Dark Elf of the Sindarin Elf Eöl, but Turgon no doubt meant that Eöl was of the Moriquendi."

–Anwyn

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Q: Do the Elves and Dwarves or any other mythical races of LOTR live anywhere else on Arda but Middle-earth? Perhaps in the hither lands?

–Tom Servo

Q: I was reading what you guys said about the lands to the east of Mordor and Rhûn... and I was wondering: did Tolkien ever write anything about any other continents on Arda? Seems as if there could have been some large landmasses to the WEST of the Undying Lands... and they could have been populated with men, elves, orcs (if Morgoth had been there) etc. Just curious...

–bushwak777@aol.com

A: Well, we can only imagine there were significant populations in the far and wide lands of Arda. Tolkien does not say much on this. I can safely say that there were Men all across Rhûn and further East, many who had been there since WAY BACK when Men awoke in Hildórien. Morgoth (and later Sauron) took advantage of these Men who lacked any significant contact with the Eldar, enslaving many and building on allegiances with more. These are the Easterlings we read about in LOTR.

You will find very little concerning Elves or Dwarves and I am reluctant to guess. The Silmarillion covers those divisions of Elves who struggled West towards Beleriand and ultimately Valinor. Those Avari who never left the wild lands of the East may still be there or maybe they were all captured by Morgoth. Histories of the Dwarves does not mention other communities elsewhere on the planet.

Yes, there were some notes by Tolkien about the distant continents beyond his detailed maps. Many new lands were created across the Great Sea after the Downfall of Númenor when "the world was made round." We just don’t know what they looked like nor who lived there. Fonstad has plenty to say about these landmasses from a cartographer’s viewpoint in her Atlas of Middle-earth.

–Quickbeam

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Q: Why didn't the Valar defeat Morgoth for a second time? Why did they sit on their hands in Valinor/Aman and make the Noldor fight Morgoth for the Silmarils?

–laxndon@aol.com

A: Tolkien dealt with this question at length in "Notes on motives in The Silmarillion," which appeared in Morgoth’s Ring (History of Middle-earth Volume X) and gives the volume its title. It is hard to summarize it briefly, but the idea is that Morgoth had invested his native power into the physical world itself. "For this reason he had to be fought, mainly by physical force, and enormous material ruin was a probable consequence of any direct combat with him, victorious of otherwise. This is the chief explanation of the constant reluctance of the Valar to come into open battle against Morgoth.... The whole of ‘Middle-earth’ was Morgoth’s Ring." He goes on to explain that the Noldor "were the best possible weapon with which to keep Morgoth at bay... without provoking him to a frenzy of nihilistic destruction." Morgoth, focusing on the Noldor, reduced himself so much that." He had fallen to like being a tyrant-king with conquered slaves, and vast obedient armies." By the time the Valar intervened directly, the ruin was limited to Beleriand.

–Ostadan

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Q: Why would the men of Esgaroth destroy their bridges in preparation for the attack by Smaug, a flying creature? I'd want to keep my bridges open as escape routes!

Thanks,

–Crebain

A: Ah, but there weren’t "bridges." There was only "the bridge to the land," which was "thrown down and destroyed." Now if there were only one bridge, and you were a dragon trying to attack, and you saw people fleeing across that bridge, what would be your first action? If I were a smart dragon, I’d be getting at the other end of that bridge and eating everybody who was foolish enough to run that way. Also, it was evidently in Smaug’s mind to attack from the bridge–it would be less tiring for him to walk into the village and closer range to flame the buildings, not to mention snapping up people, which he couldn’t do from the air. It says "he came over them, swept towards the bridges [sic] and was foiled! The bridge [sic] was gone, and his enemies were on an island in deep water–too deep and dark for his liking." Tolkien doesn’t seem to have made up his mind in that particular passage whether there was one bridge or many, but earlier he clearly stated "the bridge to the land."

This way, they kept him in the air, not down on the land among them causing even greater havoc and panic. With him in the air, there was no real need to jump over the side and try to get to the land, because with the bridge down, there would be no choice but to make a stand together. To paraphrase an old saying, "We must all stand together, or we will assuredly burn separately." People running piecemeal towards the woods would have been very easy for Smaug to pick off one by one, much as he did with the Dwarves’ unfortunate ponies. On their island, packed together, Smaug would have to attack generally, instead of picking on specific people, and as long as they kept the town from burning, they would have pretty decent odds at survival. It says that the warriors and bowmen had time to arm, and keeping people together gave them a good chance at being protected.

–Anwyn

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Q: Were there any other "wizards" besides the Istari? I mean, in one part, after Sam repeats a scrap of lore, one of the other hobbits (can’t remember which, lost my book) says maybe he will become a wizard.

–Merlin the Blue

A: Frodo says: "I am learning a lot about Sam Gamgee on this journey. First he was a conspirator, now he’s a jester. He’ll end up by becoming a wizard–or a warrior!"

"I hope not," said Sam. "I don’t want to be neither!"

Frodo is clearly having some fun with Samwise in this passage. To answer you plainly, no: There were no other wizards besides the Five Istari. We who appreciate all kinds of fantasy fiction look for the seeds of wizardry even in common folk. You can read all about a young English fellow with a unique scar on his forehead who is learning to become a wizard at a special school. In that vein of fantasy it seems all you need is an organic talent and the right training. But not so in Tolkien. His use of "wizard" was strictly for those powerful and mysterious beings who were true messengers from Valinor.

–Quickbeam

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Q: I've recently become a ringer fan and two things bother me. One is what do the Dwarven rings do? A great deal is told of the other rings, but I have yet to see any thing concerning the dwarf rings other than there is seven of them. Does it mention anywhere what power they have?

–Anonymous

A: There seems to be little specific information about the Dwarf-rings. We know that, like the Three and the Nine, each had "its proper gem," but can only speculate on what gems adorned each. We know that the Seven had the power to "inflame their hearts with a greed of gold and precious things, so that if they lacked them all other good things seemed profitless, and they were filled with wrath and desire for vengeance on all who deprived them."

"Of the Rings of Power" in The Silmarillion tells us that the Dwarves "used their rings only for the getting of wealth," and that, "It is said that the foundation of each of the Seven Hoards of the Dwarf-kings of old was a golden ring." Thrór told Thorin that the last of the Seven "needs gold to breed gold," but nowhere are we told exactly how this happens – whether the rings bring luck in matters of trade or mining, or somehow influence those with whom the Dwarves do commerce, is entirely a matter of speculation.

–Ostadan

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Q: After recently re-reading the LOTR, it struck me as odd that Sauron could not have divined from Denethor, Steward of Gondor, (through the Seeing Stones), the intentions to unmake the One Ring. I don't have the text in front of me, but I recall that Denethor knew the plan of the Grey Company and was not too keen on a pair of Hobbits tromping around Mordor with Sauron's prize. It is also clear that Sauron was really tightening the screws on Denethor. What do you think?

–Michael Riley

A: I agree that Sauron was "tightening the screws," but let’s think of the way that manifested itself. It seems to have been a one-way process, from Sauron to Denethor, not vice-versa. Sauron’s objective was to weaken Minas Tirith, and he did so by infesting Denethor’s visions with despair and will too broken to keep fighting. This seems to have been all he was capable of, and the reason for this was the strength of Denethor’s will to begin with. "He was too great to be subdued to the will of the Dark Power; he saw nonetheless only those things which that Power permitted him to see." It seems clear that Denethor’s will (though not his wisdom, since he thought he was controlling the Stone) was great enough at this point that Sauron could not worm his way inside his thoughts and extract information from him, but not great enough to fight against despair and excess of pride. "Yet the vision of the great might of Mordor that was shown to him fed the despair of his heart until it overthrew his mind."

–Anwyn

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Q: In The Silmarillion, when the host of the newborn elves were first being escorted across Middle-earth from Cuiviénen to Valinor, how did they sustain themselves? I do not believe they hunted or ate meat (the Green Elves of Ossiriand were specifically said to be vegetarians, and when the hobbits eat with the group of elves in the Shire in Fellowship, it is bread/fruit/nut type foods). So they must have been farmers. But how can a huge host (hundreds? thousands?) of elves move without building farms everywhere? Was the time scale of the journey so long that they would be able to construct farms at each point? The distance was huge so it would take many thousands of years? Were they 'born' with extensive knowledge of agriculture? This was long before their days at Valinor where they gained tremendous knowledge, they were 'primitive'. Tolkien says the ancient Elves were extremely tolerant of heat/cold, weariness, or hunger (Fingolfin's crossing of the ice). They just ate so much less than humans that they could survive on wild berries, etc? Please tell me if Tolkien discusses this anywhere, or what y'all think about it. Thanks! ;-)

–Alex Fichter

A: We call this period of Arda’s early history the "Great March" or sometimes the "Great Journey." As for the Elves finding sustenance, well, it seems that time was on their side. These migratory events took place over many thousands of years (some estimate as much as 9,000 years between the time of their awakening at Cuiviénen and the beginning of the First Age). That’s a mighty long time.

With the Vanyar, Noldor and especially the Teleri taking the slow route West, I would expect they went from "living off the land" to developing their own kinds of agriculture. You can imagine there were many Ents they met along the way, who surely taught them a thing or two! We know that great hosts of the Elves would settle comfortably for "many an age" before continuing their Journey.

Time for farming? Plenty, as I see it. Fishing and hunting? Plentiful as well. And not all of the Elves were vegetarian: the Wood-elves in The Hobbit enjoyed feasts with roast meats. In LOTR, however, it is much harder to find specific reference of Elves eating such things (but that’s another mystery).

–Quickbeam

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Q: Hello there, I have a question that no one ever seemed to explain in any book written about the Middle-earth. Of all the creatures of the Middle-earth, Trolls seem to have the least information written about them. I know that they were first bred in the pits of Utumno from the Ents, but why are there so many kinds of trolls? There are Snow Trolls, Hill Trolls, Stone Trolls, Cave Trolls, and Mountain Trolls. So what’s the difference between the different kinds? Some reference has been made to the Trolls from The Hobbit as 'Stone Trolls' but is that because of what species they are? Or because of what they became when they were exposed to sun-light: Stone. Or is it where they live that makes them what kind they are? Are they named Mountain Trolls, or Cave Trolls, or Hill Trolls because that’s where they prefer to dwell?

–Charcaroth

A: Trolls were originally a kind of wildlife – probably little, if any, more intelligent than gorillas (in Appendix F, they "were creatures of dull and lumpish nature and had no more language than beasts."). Perhaps, like the great apes, there were more than one variety found in different environments. Alternatively, we know that Sauron had bred them to improve their ferocity and cunning (ultimately resulting in the fell race of the Olog-Hai), so perhaps his breeding program included the creation of specialized races.

–Ostadan

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Q: I have a question that has been bugging me. Was Galadriel part of the White Council?

–Samuel E. Hargraves

A: Yes indeed. In the end of Silmarillion, in "Of the Rings of Power and the Third Age," it is stated: "But at length the Shadow returned and its power increased; and in that time was first made the Council of the Wise that is called the White Council, and therein were Elrond and Galadriel and Círdan, and other lords of the Eldar, and with them were Mithrandir and Curunír." Interesting that it doesn’t say it included Radagast or the Blue Wizards… it is to be supposed that at this time the three of them had already forsaken their tasks for the most part.

–Anwyn

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Q: Can you please explain to me how a group as wise as the Valar could've been so inept in their selection of the Istari? Of the five; two immediately "skipped town," one wandered off to play with the animals, and one was just a bad apple. Only Gandalf did what they were all sent to do, and one out of five seems to me like a pretty miserable "batting average" for the noble Valar, eh?

–Crebain

A: Well, it’s not expected that all Maia would stay pure and perfectly angelic all the time! I can name a few particular Maia spirits who turned out to be real hard-cases (Sauron anyone?). You assume the Valar were able to see all possible outcomes ahead of their choosing the Istari, but that is not so.

Asking these Maia to become emissaries of the Valar was a really tall order: they were in essence to be human for a time! The Istari would bear human bodies, suffer pain, feel hunger and weariness, not to mention all the other attendant failings of mankind like pride and disloyalty (Saruman anyone?).

The Valar may have been wise but they did not approach omnipotence. Their true design in sending the Istari was a noble one, ironically rubbing against their previous stance of "non-involvement" in the affairs of Elves and Men. Manwë in particular was aware of how bad things were getting, and he really wanted to help. It was therefore his personal command that Olórin would go, that spirit who would become the most effective of all Istari: Gandalf. I strongly recommend you read Unfinished Tales for more juicy details on this.

–Quickbeam

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Q: Hi! I really like your Q&A section. I read in Appendix A of LOTR about the great battle of Azalnubizar between dwarves and orcs at the gates of Moria, when the dwarves' armies defeated the forces of Azog the Goblin, losing many lives. My question is: why didn't the Balrog of Moria take part in the battle? The forces of the two armies were so similar that the intervention of such a big power would probably have lead the evil forces to victory, and to the complete destruction of all the dwarves' armies (which is not a small thing). In fact, Dain seems to be very frightened after having looked into the Gates, and advises Thráin not to enter Moria because Durin's Bane would be waiting for them. So it's clear that the Balrog was in; why didn't he go out?

–Jaime

A: So, you're just asking us to interpret and explain the psychological and tactical motivations of a primordial Demon of Might, the Flame of Udûn? OK, no problem. There is no particular reason to suppose that the Balrog was interested in anything besides sleeping in its nice underground hideaway. When awakened, it got rid of those irritating Dwarves, though it evidently found Orcs less obnoxious company. But this toleration, or even mastery, of the Orcs of Moria did not extend to leaving its nice home in Moria on their behalf, nor in lending its aid to the Orcs for military purposes.

–Ostadan

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Q: In Tolkien's writings we learn that by the end of the Third Age and throughout the Fourth the Elves are passing over the sea to Valinor–and their numbers in Middle-earth dwindle. What about the Elves that never saw the light of Aman? Weren't they more numerous then the Vanyar, Noldor, and Teleri? Where did they go (aside from Lórien and Thranduil's realm)?

–Duane Cologne

A: Maybe they were slightly more numerous than the Eldar that remained in Middle-earth, but probably no more numerous than the Eldar as a whole. There was never a mention made, so far as I know, of any other "colonies" of Elves living in Middle-earth besides the Wood-elves in Mirkwood, Elrond’s folk, Galadriel’s folk, and at the Grey Havens.

–Anwyn

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Q: It seems that throughout the course of the books, putting the Ring on would give Sauron a "heads up" as to the Ring’s location. As Frodo gets nearer to Mordor (and Sauron) the struggle against the Ring's will becomes greater, until it finally overtakes him at the cracks of doom. Once Frodo placed the Ring on his finger, Sauron knew he was there and knew he was in trouble. Here is the question: How come Sauron (or the Nazgûl, who were overhead quite a bit) were not aware of the Ring when Sam put it on?

–bushwak777@aol.com

A: Frodo had grown, and his wearing the Ring was a *Significant Event* in Sauron's eye. By contrast, Sam, who had never been tempted by the Ring, was humble and seemingly nearly immune to the Ring's corruption. He is almost like Bombadil, in the sense that both are uninterested in Power – Sam dismisses his brief daydream of Samwise the Strong with little effort, and yields the Ring relatively easily to Frodo, hesitating only because he is unwilling to burden Frodo with it again. So Sam probably was no more visible to Sauron than if a rabbit had accidentally eaten the Ring.

–Ostadan

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Q: Hi. When Gandalf first tells Frodo about the true nature of the One Ring, Frodo wishes to destroy it. Gandalf urges him to try, but isn't at all surprised that Frodo can't manage even to toss the Ring into the fireplace. Given that understanding, how could Gandalf or anyone else at the Council of Elrond seriously expect Frodo to be able to destroy the Ring once he reached the Cracks of Doom?

Thanks,

–Bob Thistleweed

A: Intriguing question, and a fair one as well. Have you ever tried to do something once, been unsuccessful, and practiced and/or tried until you could do it well?

"Yeah, but Anwyn, um, I wasn’t trying to deal with an artifact that could catch hold of my willpower and strangle my own natural reason, you know?"

True. The Ring’s ability to drain willpower had already been witnessed, in Frodo himself, and yet he was still appointed to be the Ring-bearer. Why?

One reason is to be found in the nature of Hobbits. Gandalf says that both Gollum and modern Hobbits are much tougher than the Wise might suppose. He says that Hobbits in particular can resist the evil powers of the Ring far longer than other beings–witness how reluctant Gandalf is to take charge of it himself, even for a short while, and how quickly Galadriel refuses. Each of them knows that they would take the Ring and immediately be tempted to use it, while a Hobbit, more patient and more humble, does not try to use it, but only keeps it. "I suppose I must keep the Ring and guard it, at least for the present, whatever it may do to me,’ [said Frodo.] ‘Whatever it may do, it will be slow, slow to evil, if you keep it with that purpose,’ said Gandalf. So forget giving it up, anybody else would have taken it and used it long before reaching Mount Doom. So it was kind of a choice between two evils–nobody’s going to have the willpower to throw it into the Fire, but anybody else but a Hobbit would rise up and use it. So give it to the Hobbit, and hope for the best.

On to the point–how could they expect Frodo to pull it off? Well. We know the ending, that Frodo was not actually able to do it, but they didn’t know. They had to hope for the best, and trust that an entire journey with Frodo’s mind bent on destroying the Ring might somehow be able to overcome the terrible hold the Ring would try to take. They were hoping for the best, but not quite blindly–Gandalf said that his heart foretold that Gollum would have his part to play, and how correct he was!! In essence I believe it was a leap of faith. Maybe unjustified from a certain point of view, but Frodo did have enough will to carry him mile after terrible mile to Mount Doom with the Ring weighting him down, and I’ve observed before that a merciful Eru had no intention of allowing all that good effort and good intention to go to waste.

–Anwyn

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Q: What happens to the "souls" of elves that are killed in battle? Can they ever return to Middle-earth?

–Kay

Q: I have wondered about the nature of the Elves' immortality, and their fates after "dying" in Middle-earth. As I understand it, when Fëanor, for example, was killed in Middle-earth, he actually traveled to the Halls of Mandos, complete in body and mind. Is he confined to that area of Aman until the end, or may he roam about Aman at will, able to be reunited with his kinsmen who have either been killed as well or who have returned over the sea from Middle-earth? What are slain elves actually able to do after being slain?

–Justin Harclerode

A: Souls of elves killed in battle return to the Halls of Mandos, a kind of a holding place in Aman. Sometimes spirits are able to return to the body, but specific instances of this are rare. Justin is mistaken in saying that Fëanor was sent to Mandos "complete in body and mind," however. Silmarillion states: "Then [Fëanor] died; but he had neither burial nor tomb, for so fiery was his spirit that as it sped his body fell to ash, and was borne away like smoke; and his likeness has never again appeared in Arda, neither has his spirit left the halls of Mandos."

It is my understanding that as long as the spirits remain in Mandos they are not with anybody except other spirits. I believe that in order to be with their loved ones again they would have to return to the body and to Arda.

–Anwyn

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Q: I was wondering if you could share your views as to why Elrond chose who he did for the Fellowship. I mean, would it not have been better to simply send off Gandalf with Aragorn and Glorfindel? These guys could have snuck in and out without Sauron being any the wiser. After all, Gandalf stole into Dol Guldur with no problems (even managing to pick up a few souvenirs), Aragorn's obviously a seasoned campaigner, and Glorfindel managed to stick it to Gothmog so he's got to be all right in a jam, too. I find it hard to buy that all the Free Peoples of Middle-earth needed representation, or that Gandalf's foresight would convince Elrond. They were pretty darn lucky in the end. Why do you think Elrond selected the Fellowship as he did?

–Simple Cyborg

A: First let me observe that I love the phrasing of your question–you ask us to "share our views." It’s always well to keep in mind that none of us is Tolkien and therefore there are many topics on which we may only profitably share views, not hope to pin down a factual answer. J

Now, on to your question. For your hypothetical, why did he not send off Gandalf with Aragorn and Glorfindel, the first and foremost reason is because Frodo was appointed to be Ring-bearer. He volunteered freely for this task, and Elrond in his wisdom perceived that it was allotted to him, for whatever reason and by whatever higher power. Remember, even in the very beginning of Fellowship, Gandalf says that he believes Bilbo was meant to find and Frodo meant to have the Ring, and Elrond seems to have believed this as well. "If I understand aright all that I have heard,’ he said, ‘I think that this task is appointed for you, Frodo; and that if you do not find a way, no one will." The key to it lies in that last bit; Elrond is well convinced that a might warrior would not be able to succeed if Frodo fails. And that may also be the key to the choice of the rest of the Company. Elrond goes on to state that now may be the hour of the Shire-folk, when they rise from their quiet fields to trouble the counsels of the wise and the great.

As I read over the pertinent passage, I am convinced that Elrond also understood that whatever companions he sent with Frodo would be more for comfort, protection, and friendship along the way rather than for help at the end of the Road. Witness that in the end it is only Sam who remains with Frodo, and most of his aid lies in helping Frodo to keep toiling, to not give up. Thus it seems reasonable to suppose that in choosing a Dwarf, an Elf, and Men to complete the roster of the Free Peoples, he was choosing companions who would each have special skills that would help the company as a whole. As Legolas says at the Redhorn: "But I say: let a ploughman plough, but choose an otter for swimming, and for running light over grass and leaf, or over snow–an Elf." These eight companions were chosen to help Frodo make it to his destination, not to help him complete his task.

Now, about the completion of that task. Elrond says clearly that even if he chose an Elf-lord such as Glorfindel, he would not be able to storm the Dark Tower or open the road to the Fire. He expected Frodo and Sam to be more successful at this than an openly declared Elf-lord, and I believe the same is true of Aragorn. Sauron was certainly attuned to Aragorn’s whereabouts, since he would have surmised his existence and feared him greatly as the descendent of the Kings of the West. The chances of Aragorn being able to sneak into Mordor would have been very slim. He served a much greater purpose in openly showing himself to Sauron and drawing the Eye away from its own borders. And actually, in the end, this was the primary purpose of all the companions. They drew Sauron’s attention away, to Isengard, to Helm’s Deep, to Edoras, to Minas Tirith, anywhere but Ithilien, Cirith Ungol, or Mount Doom. The fewer people you have, the more likely a sneaky trip is to be successful. Everybody knew they had no hope of facing Sauron openly, so sneaking was the only option–and to paraphrase Legolas: "Let an Elf run, but choose a Dwarf for axing Orc-necks, and for sneaking silently into strong places where the Wise fear to tread–a Hobbit."

–Anwyn

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Q: Hi-hi... this is something that has been plaguing me for a short while now; maybe it is silly; maybe I just haven't done enough research, but why precisely does Arwen have to forsake immortality to marry Aragorn? Is there something that makes marriages between Elves and Men impossible, unless the Elf gives up his/her immortality, or is it a consequence of getting married, simply? Incidentally, just how does one go about giving up his/her own immortality? Do you just get up in the morning and ponder for a couple of hours and somehow notify the Valar that you have decided you'd much rather be mortal, and therefore you won't be getting on any ships to Valinor?

–Irene

A: I suspect it has a great deal to do with (1) the nature of marriage and (2) the potential of offspring. First of all, a marriage so unequal–that one partner would have to wither and die while the other partner remained fresh and unstained, and the other partner would have to witness with withering and dying of his/her love, is a very great strain on a marriage. Secondly, having children who could run around choosing what they were going to be might be kind of dangerous. The parents in essence make the choice for them, with the exception a few well-known cases.

As for how it’s done, well, there again, it’s a case where Tolkien didn’t lay out any magic words or formulas. It seems to have been an "active choice," an act of will on the part of the chooser that allowed her (Arwen, Lúthien) to change the essence of what she was and be accepted into the Doom of Men–no small gift, that.

–Anwyn