Q: Here's a trivial question for you... Why has so little about the Great Rings (controlled by the One) been revealed? I haven't finished the series yet (The Silmarillion, The Hobbit, The Fellowship of the Ring) but I'm asking anyway... is it ever explained what the specific powers of each ring was? What "jewels" adorned them?

–M.C.

–Andrew

A: As far as we know, no other rings were inscribed. Remember that when the One was forged, the other rings were not yet "allotted" to these races. Sauron gathered them up (excluding the last three) and "perverted them," delivering them to the Dwarves and Men. In any case, the Elves would not inscribe their rings with the rhyme about the One that enslaved them.

As far as the specific powers of each ring, the rings gave power to their users in accordance with their kind and stature. Thus the Dwarves used theirs to breed gold, the Men used theirs to dominate those around them, etc. The jewels on the seven and the nine are not described. The Three were set with sapphire, ruby, and "adamant," or diamond.

–Anwyn

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Q: I was reading some different questions when I came upon a remark made by Turgon in the Q&A that Dwarf women had beards. Where does it say that they have beards? I always wondered that but I didn't think they would.

–Aredhel Ar-Feiniel

A: I have always wondered this myself, never having taken the time to do an exhaustive search for the appropriate quotation. The quotation I already knew about runs thus:

""[Dwarf-women] are in voice and appearance, and in garb if they must go on a journey, so like to the dwarf-men that the eyes and ears of other people cannot tell them apart."

That one doesn’t specify, but Ostadan has supplied me with more material, which I believe is also the source for Turgon’s previous Answer. Ostadan says:

"Back in April, I wrote to Quickbeam:

The passage in Return of the King says that "[Dwarf-women] are in voice and appearance, and in garb if they must go on a journey, so like to the dwarf-men that the eyes and ears of other people cannot tell them apart." … In Peoples of Middle Earth there is draft material from that Appendix, and the draft version of this passage says that "There is no difference in substance in the present text, except for the statements that they are never forced to wed against their will (which ‘would of course be impossible'), and that they have beards." Why JRRT chose to omit this information cannot be guessed.

In the post-LotR Quenta Silmarillion is a section containing "the words of Pengolod concerning the Naugrim" (pp. 203+ of The War of the Jewels, US Edition at least). In paragraph 5, we learn that "no Man nor Elf has ever seen a beardless Dwarf–unless he were shaven in mockery, and would then be more like to die of shame than of many other hurts that to us would seem more deadly. For the Naugrim have beards from the beginning of their lives, male and female alike; nor indeed can their womenkind be discerned by those of other race, be it in feature or in gait or in voice, nor in any wise save this: that they go not to war, and seldom save at direst need issue from their deep bowers and halls."

Awwwwwwww, it's a little baby dwarf-girl!! And look, her beard's the same color as her Daddy's!"

Thanks, Ostadan!

–Anwyn

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Q: Hullo. I wondered, did Saruman know that Gandalf's purpose of being in Middle-earth was to destroy Sauron, aside from the fact that they had made the council against him, that he was the One that was sent against Sauron? And if he was the One sent to fight Sauron, why wasn't he the head of the Council from the beginning? Thank you.

–Ploftus

A: It didn’t work exactly like that. No Wizard was sent "singly" with just one of them meant to be the "One" foe of Sauron. Though they may have arrived in Middle-earth at different intervals, they were surely sent by the Valar as a group. As it turns out, they didn’t stay together and function as a group through the end of the Third Age. Curunír (Saruman) was immediately recognized by the other Istari and the Free Peoples as the head of their Order (which makes his subsequent fall from power more ironic). Nor is it quite right that the Istari’s purpose was to destroy Sauron… rather they were to offer guidance to Elves and Men who fought their own struggles against the Enemy. If you haven’t yet, I recommend reading Unfinished Tales where you can find Tolkien’s essay on the Istari.

–Quickbeam

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Q: Men couldn't set foot in the Undying Lands. Could Dwarves? Did all the Grey/ Silvan/ Forest Elves set sail for the West... like Legolas (with Gimli) did? Could they go to Valinor or did they have to stay on Tol Eressëa? Was that island part of the Valinor i.e. the Undying Lands -- so then how could Bilbo, Frodo and Sam set foot on there?

–Andrew

A: The Dwarves were evidently not permitted in Aman, except for Gimli; but our information about the metaphysical destinies of the Dwarves is based on information obtained from the Elves, for whom much about the Dwarves is a mystery.

Bilbo, Frodo, and Sam are exceptional cases. "It is clear, of course," wrote Tolkien (Letters #246 (Sept. 1963)), that the plan [for Frodo and Bilbo to be healed in Aman] had actually been made and concerted (by Arwen, Gandalf and others)." Their time in Aman was limited. "Frodo was sent or allowed to pass over Sea to heal him–if that could be done, before he died. He would have eventually to ‘pass away': no mortal could, or can, abide forever on earth, or within Time."

–Ostadan

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Q: "I heard him growl in the tongue of bears; 'The day will come when they will perish and I shall go back!'" What does Beorn mean by that and where does he come from? The great and ancient bears or of the first men that lived before Smaug?

–Bilbo

A: The very next line of the quotation you mention says: "That is why I believe he once came from the mountains himself." Well, these are the Misty Mountains that are under discussion. Who inhabits the Misty Mountains that would prevent Beorn from returning? The Great Goblin and his cohorts, I would surmise. Presumably, although he is a formidable opponent, an entire nation of goblins is too much for him to defeat on his own, and he may have been driven out of the mountains by their colony. Therefore he awaits their doom so that he can "go back."

–Anwyn

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Q: Pallando and Alatar... the two Blue Istari, of whom we know little about. Does anyone think there might be a connection between them being Maiar of Oromë, who originally 'discovered' the Elves when they awakened in the East... They then go wandering in Eastern lands, where Oromë used to frequently romp? There were Elves who 'deviated' from the trail when Oromë brought them to the western shores. Could the Maiar be 'seeking' them out?

–Andrew

A: An interesting speculation. The only sure line of reference, which I’m sure you’ve seen, is found in Unfinished Tales. There is a little bit in Christopher Tolkien’s notes about each Maia spirit who was chosen and "associated" with one of the Valar, later to be sent as an Istar. In this case, Oromë sent Alatar and Pallando "though no hint is given of the reason for this relationship. It might be (though this is the merest guess) that Orome of the Valar had the greatest knowledge of the further parts of Middle-earth, and that the Blue Wizards were destined to journey in those regions and to remain there." So you see, even Christopher is left to speculate. I do like the idea of these two wandering Wizards seeking out the Avari.

–Quickbeam

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Q: In Appendix A (i) after the destruction of Númenor Sauron's body perished and he could never again assume a fair bodily form to charm his enemies. Then it goes on to say that "his power thereafter was through terror alone." Does this indicate that Sauron's and subsequently the Ring's power lay more in the psychological rather than tangible "magic" for e.g. control of the weather, bringing down plagues, etc. I also cite episodes such as the Battle at Pelennor Fields where we see it was Sauron's will pushing and guiding his armies. Even in Mordor itself his malice seemed to be the engine of his "machine." Some people have said that Gandalf's fear of Sauron indicates more a fear of psychological strength, but I believe that if Sauron had Saruman's power ten times magnified with an overpowering psychological power it would be just as dreadful. But it's just a theory. Thoughts?

–Cocoa Daffodil

A: Well, you can easily conjecture that Sauron preferred to follow Morgoth’s example: use Fear to get your underlings to do what you want. You can economize your power, as any tyrant would, by playing your opponents’ fears and letting your grunts to the dirty work. If the Dark Lord was unable to physically represent himself as kind, beguiling, and pleasant, his next option to pursue complete domination of others would be through fear. Of real interest is what Tolkien tells us in Letter No. 183 about Sauron: "In my story Sauron represents as near an approach to the wholly evil will as is possible."

His psychological power, his malignant will, was certainly very great. With that power, he had impressive control of his resources and, more importantly, projected a larger image of himself to the world outside Mordor. And yes, I believe that Sauron also had "magical" or preternatural powers, as would befit a Maia.

–Quickbeam

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Q: This is really just a "what if" question, but in the battle between the hobbits and mean old Sharky, do you think he would have built up more strength secretly and become the next Dark Lord if he and his men were victorious?

–Jimboclick@aol.com

A: "Child," said Aslan, "did I not explain to you once before that no one is ever told what _would_have_happened?_" -C. S. Lewis, "The Voyage of the Dawn Treader"

Oh, all right. From a narrative standpoint, one purpose of the Scouring of the Shire is to show just how far Saruman had fallen. From the head of the White Council, the greatest of the angelic emissaries sent to Middle-earth to hinder Sauron, he had been reduced to a petty Boss of a gang of thugs running the Shire. He had no power remaining to him, except his voice. Frodo found him pitiable. It seems unlikely that he could have ever become a new Dark Lord; he was capable of nothing more than small-minded revenge on Frodo.

–Ostadan

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Q: I love the Q&A that is provided on this site. I have always believed that Sauron made the 9 and the 7 for men and dwarves, respectively. However, now that I've read "Of the Rings of Power" in The Silmarillion, it seems that I'm probably wrong. Specifically, after the Elves detected that Sauron was trying to control them with the One, they removed their rings (not just the three the Celebrimbor made). Sauron then demanded them as his teachings made them possible, then brought war to Eregion. However, The Silmarillion says, "But Sauron gathered into his hands all the remaining Rings of Power; and he dealt them out to the other peoples of Middle-earth, hoping thus to bring under his sway all those that desired secret power beyond the measure of their kind. Seven rings he gave to the Dwarves; but to men he gave nine...." (p. 357). The Fellowship confirms that "nine he gave to Mortal men" (p. 60), but says nothing about him making the rings, as I believed. So, my question is, "Were the 9 and 7 originally made by the Elves under the influence of Sauron's malevolence so they were really evil?" It seems peculiar if that's the case as, for example, the rings always seemed to me to be made specific to a race (e.g., Dwarves found gold with them). However, I can't find evidence that the rings were made with a specific race in mind. Thus, it seems that instead of the Ulairi as men, they might have turned out Elven Wraiths instead if Sauron's original plan worked out (i.e., to dominate the Elves with the One Ring). Corrections? Insights?

–Jim Mahalik

A: Silmarillion states: "And all those rings that he governed he perverted, the more easily since he had a part in their making, and they were accursed, and they betrayed in the end all those that used them." Italics my own. In guiding and directing the making of the rings, he thus had a part in their making, though he did not make them on his own. Presumably having profited from Sauron’s guidance, Celebrimbor went on to make the Three, which were "forged by Celebrimbor alone, and the hand of Sauron had never touched them; yet they also were subject to the One." Which bears on a question I’ve answered before, why did Sauron put so much of his own power into a physical object? Silmarillion stated prior to the above quotations, "And much of the strength and will of Sauron passed into that One Ring; for the power of the Elven-rings was very great, and that which should govern them must be a thing of surpassing potency."

As for the rings being made specifically for a race, I don’t think they were. Nor, as is shown by the above quote, were they inherently evil; they were evil only after Sauron "perverted" them. But what happens is that a Ring of Power gives power to the one who wields it in accordance with his kind and stature. The one thing the Dwarves all share is their love of gold–a perverted ring would prey on that. Silmarillion implies that is the only way they could be enslaved, because that is all they used the rings for. "They used their rings only for the getting of wealth; but wrath and an over-mastering greed of gold were kindled in their hearts, of which evil enough after came to the profit of Sauron."

Elven Ringwraiths? Perhaps, perhaps not. It would depend on what they tried to use the rings to do, and what the desires of their hearts were that the rings would prey on. The desires of the Nine Mortal Men were for domination, and they were given a measure of that, but only at the cost of being utterly, wholly dominated themselves. In the same way, the rings placated the greed of the dwarves, but they lost their fortunes in the end to the dragons or to Sauron.

–Anwyn

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Q: Men, Elves, Dwarves... were all given Rings... what about the Ents!? They too were another sentient group of beings living in Middle-earth... Is there any reference ANYWHERE, or even your own speculation as to why Ents weren't considered for ring-bearing?

–Andrew

A: Sauron’s grand plan with the Rings of Power was to ensnare the Free Peoples and bring the wielders under his control with The One Ring. Evidently, he didn’t consider the Ents as a viable group that would be efficacious under his control… so he never had Rings made for them. Perhaps this was one of the biggest oversights in his plan! Being so quiet, secluded, and almost "asleep" for thousands of years, I can see why Sauron would overlook them. It’s also worth noting that the Ents had no temporal desires in the physical world: traits such as greed or lust for power, that could be used to ensare them. A magic Ring would have held no attraction to an Ent.

–Quickbeam

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Q: Hi! I was wondering when Durin, the father or all the dwarves (you know, the first Durin of the whole lot), died and where and how. I think the information is somewhere, but I don't know where. Thanks!

–Angelo Mao

A: Another big secret in Tolkien’s legendarium. Seems there is precious little information about Durin the Deathless. Appendix A says that he eventually died sometime during the First Age (I assume that means ‘died from old age’) and was entombed in Khazad-dûm. I cannot find any other details.

–Quickbeam

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Q: Greetings! What happened to Tom Bombadil and his Goldberry after the end of the Third Age? Could he have gone to the West? And what do you know (I'm talking about rare stuff) about them? Do you think I should search for "The adventures of Tom Bombadil?" Thank you...

–Aretakis Bros

A: Bombadil, whatever or whoever he was, was clearly bound to that part of Middle-earth that he took as his own domain; it is impossible to imagine him leaving. He was there before the Elves (and, it seems, never was in Aman in the Uttermost West), and was there after they left. He may be there still. "The Adventures of Tom Bombadil" is a collection of poems connected (however loosely) with Middle-earth; two of them are about Tom Bombadil. They are worth looking at, but you will gain little ‘lore’ from them.

–Ostadan

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Q: My favorite character in LotR is Faramir. I think since he had the dream several times it was intended that he travel to Rivendell and become a member of the Fellowship rather than Boromir. I daydream about the how the story would have changed if Faramir had replaced Boromir. Do you think if he had gone that the eventual outcome of the quest to destroy the Ring would have failed?

–Milo

A: Ostadan is full of pithy quotes this month; when this question was under discussion he brought forth one from my dear C.S. Lewis, when little Lucy asks to be told if everything would have come out all right had she acted differently: "To know what would have happened, child?’ said Aslan. ‘No. Nobody is ever told that." And quite rightly so–how our frail human psyches could ever live with the despair that would be produced by knowing we could have saved a situation through other actions is beyond me. But I think that we may rest secure upon the old axiom "Everything happens for a reason;" or, to put it more Christianly, "All things work together for good for those who love Him and are called according to His purposes." Simply put, good came out of evil because Boromir, not Faramir, was with the company. Consider this–if Boromir had not been with the Company, he would not have been there to demand the Ring and to try to wrest it from Frodo by force, thereby driving Frodo and Sam to depart on their own. We’ve already said many times that a larger force, be they human, Elf, or Dwarf, could not have stormed into Mordor; that in essence the only way was the way Frodo and Sam took. So if that had not happened? If Faramir had gone would the quest have failed? I can’t say, but I think it’s likely that Ilúvatar knew Boromir’s weaknesses and used them to the advantage of the Quest, just as Gollum, in the end, was used.

–Anwyn

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Q: Dear Green Books staff, I have a question about Dwarves and their realms. In FotR, there is a mention of dwarves passing through the Shire, coming from the southern lands, moving away from unrest (probably caused by Sauron's servants). However, I haven't been able to find one single reference to Dwarvish settlements in the south. Another thing–during the council of Elrond, Glóin refers to Moria as "the wonder in the north" (or something like that, I only have the Swedish translation), but as far as I know, Moria is located south of Erebor, the Iron hills and the Blue Mountains (as well as the ancient realms of Nogrod and Belegost). Were there Dwarven kingdoms south of the Misty Mountains, or could the Dwarvish travelers mentioned in FotR in fact have been refugees from Moria? Kind regards,

–Omringaren

A: Gimli describes Moria as the "wonder of the Northern world." You are correct that technically, it is the southernmost of the Dwarven kingdoms (it is at the southernmost reach of the Misty Mountains), but it is still in the "northern hemisphere," so to speak. When Gimli describes it as the wonder of the Northern world, he doesn’t mean that it’s the "wonder of the northern Dwarven kingdoms," as compared to the Dwarven kingdoms of the south, he just means it’s a wonder in the north, to all races.

As far as the refugees coming through the Shire, Fellowship states: "There were, however, dwarves on the road in unusual numbers. The ancient East-West Road ran through the Shire to its end at the Grey Havens and dwarves had always used it on their way to their mines in the Blue Mountains. … But now Frodo often met strange dwarves of far countries, seeking refuge in the West. They were troubled, and some spoke in whispers of the Enemy and of the Land of Mordor." So it seems clear that these dwarves were not coming necessarily from the south, but were headed west from wherever they started out–Erebor, or the Iron Hills, perhaps. Since it doesn’t say particularly, we might speculate that some of them are from Moria, but personally I tend to doubt that, since those Balin took with him would have been loyal to him, and most if not all were killed by the orcs, trolls, and the Balrog.

–Anwyn

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Q: There is one thing which I have been wondering about madly that I hope you can help me with. The question (this might seem a pointless question but I need to know!) is about the chieftains of Arnor. Aragorn was the 15th chieftain, which obviously means that there were 14 before him. Now, in Gondor there were 25 ruling stewards. Why did the rangers of the north take so long to be an influence in Gondor? After Eärnur with the help of Glorfindel destroyed the realm of Angmar, then there was no enemy left that side of the Misty Mountains. What did they have left to do? Surely the influence of a king in Gondor would have been better than a steward, possibly they could have brought round the downfall of Sauron early with the help of a king. Basically my question is why did Aragorn show himself so late? Why didn't Aravir, Aragorn I, or Arathorn II (Aragorn's father) go to claim the throne of Gondor? It seems as though Aragorn was cutting it close. Maybe I have missed something like a prophecy or something but it seems a little strange. One last thing (Sorry!), did the Stewards of Gondor know about the Rangers of the North and know that they were the true heirs to the throne? Thanks for you help!

–Mike Kinnaird

A: We are told that after Arvedui, the North-kingdom ended, "for the Dúnedain were now few and all the peoples of Eriador diminished." Evidently, the former kingdom of Arnor was simply reduced to small hamlets like Bree. Meanwhile, it must be remembered that Arvedui, who had a decent claim to the throne of Gondor, had been rejected by the Council of Gondor in favor of Eärnil although Eärnil and Eärnur recognized Arvedui's kinship. When Eärnur died, it had been 75 years since the death of Arvedui, and the North-kingdom was gone. Before long, "the Stewards exercised all the power of the kings. ... some remembered the ancient line of the North, which it was rumored still lived on in the shadows. But against such thoughts the Ruling Stewards hardened their hearts." It was not until Aragorn, a conquering hero mind you, came forth as the hidden King, in possession of Narsil re-forged as Andúril and the other heirlooms of the North, that he could make the claim to that throne.

–Ostadan

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Q: After entering Lothlórien, the Company is escorted by Haldir to a hill circled with white trees: Cerin Amroth. After marveling at the "elvishness" of it, Aragorn, states that there his heart "dwells ever." He then takes Frodo by the hand, leaves, and "came there never again as a living man." Why would Aragorn not return to this special place after being crowned King? Did he know this would be the final resting place of Arwen, and therefore couldn't bear to see it?

–KurtRiegner@aol.com

A: I don’t think such specific prescience was part of the gifts of Our Hero. I believe the answer lies in this passage from "The Tale of Aragorn and Arwen."

"Then for a season [Aragorn and Arwen] wandered together in the glades of Lothlórien, until it was time for him to depart. And on the evening of Midsummer Aragorn, Arathorn’s son, and Arwen daughter of Elrond went to the fair hill, Cerin Amroth, in the midst of the land, and they walked unshod on the undying grass with elanor and niphredil about their feet. And there upon that hill they looked east to the Shadow and west to the Twilight, and they plighted their troth and were glad."

His heart dwells in the place where he received Arwen’s promise that she would "cleave" to him, but when the war was over and they were married, he received her, not only her promise. His heart then dwelt with him in her, and he would have no need to return to the hill of the promise. We see, however, that she had need to, when it was her time to depart from mortal life.

Added to that, have you ever refrained from revisiting a place where something important happened because you knew it could never be as glorious as it was before? J Something to think about.

–Anwyn

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Q: I've read The Silmarillion a couple of times as well as LotR. I don't remember if this is mentioned in either. I noticed that Thorondor was the King of the Eagles in the First Age and Gwaihir was in the Third. Now I was wondering what the life-span of Eagles was because it seemed like Thorondor was alive the entire First Age. Or are Eagles immortal? Because didn't they originally live in the Undying Lands? Could you help me out on this one? Thank you.

–Luke...A.K.A. Jester

A: Tolkien addressed this point–with much hesitation and indecision–in an essay (really just a collection of jottings) on the subject of Orcs and their souls that appears in "Morgoth's Ring." Considering the matter of Orcs, and whether their speaking ability implies that they have souls (fëar), he observes, "Only the Valar and Maiar are intelligences that can assume forms of Arda at will. Huan and Sorontar [Thorondor] could be Maiar – emissaries of Manwë. But unfortunately in The Lord of the Rings, Gwaehir and Landroval are said to be _descendants_ of Sorontar." In this essay, he rejects the idea of souls for Orcs, and adds, "The same sort of thing may be said of Huan and the Eagles: they were taught language by the Valar, and raised to a higher level–but they still had no fëar." Still, he changed his mind about Orcs and souls several time, and never came to a final conclusion–so it may be said of the Eagles that perhaps Thorondor was an emissary of Manwë, a Maia who, like Melian, was himself immortal and begat children who were not themselves immortal (nor necessarily even possessing a fëa, although they could speak).

Or putting it another way: not even the Wise were certain as to the truth about the Great Eagles.

–Ostadan

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Q: Where exactly is Utumno/Angband? I can't find it in my edition of the Silmarillion! I assume it's somewhere way up north? And another question: is Beleriand et al completely destroyed after the war of wrath, or is it just gone under the sea, and thereby in connection with our own legend of Atlantis? Thanks in advance!

–Vincent

A: The Silmarillion map cannot show you the exact location of Angband. It lay further north off the map’s edge, above Anfauglith. The ‘second’ fortress of Melkor, Thangorodrim, was also left off that map, strangely enough. Keep in mind that Utumno was significantly older than Thangorodrim, predating it to the time of the Lamps of the Valar. Utumno was partially destroyed by the Valar at the time the Firstborn awoke, and later Melkor rebuilt it as Thangorodrim on the western reaches of Angband.

The shape of Arda changed between the time of the Lamps of the Valar and the later geography of Beleriand. Evidently the decision was made to have the Silmarillion map show the more central stage of geographical history long after Utumno existed.

And no, Tolkien’s deliberate connection to our Atlantis myth is found in the tale of Númenor, not Beleriand. However, there is something in our previous Q&A about Galadriel’s reference to Beleriand being raised above the waves once more. Click here: [HERE]

–Quickbeam